Goods and Services Tax (Multiple Choice Questions B.COM SEM 5)
(Multiple Choice Questions B,COM SEM 5)
1.
GST was introduced in India with effect from
a) 1.1.2017 b) 1.4.2017 c) 1.1.2018 d) 1.7.2017
2.
GST was introduced in Jammu and Kashmir with effect from
a) 1.8.2017 b) 1.7.2017 c) 1.1.2018 d) 8.7.2017
3.
Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 for GST was
a)
80th b) 101st c) 122nd d) None of these
4.
As a result of constitution
amendment for GST a Separate List --- has been inserted in the constitution.
a)
Article 246A b) Article 146B c) Article
122 C d) Article 101B
5. The incidence of
tax on tax is called
a)
Tax Cascading b) Tax Pyramidding c) Tax
evasion d) Indiret tax
6.
Under GST, ‘value addition’ refers to
a) Expenses ‘plus’ profit b) Cost plus tax c) Cost plus tax plus‘profit d)
Tax plus profit
7.
UTGST is applicable
when
a)
Sold from Union territory b) Goods are
purchased by Central Government
c) Sold from
one union territory to another union territory d) There is interstate supply
8.
Integrated Goods and Services Tax is applicable when -
a) Sold in Union territory b) Sold from one GST dealer to another GST dealer
c) Sold within a state d) There is interstate supply
9. SGST is
applicable when
a)
Goods are sold within a state b) Goods are sold
from one GST dealer to a customer
c) Goods are
sold by a GST dealer to another GST dealer d) Interstate supply
10. The tax which was
not merged into GST
a)
Counterveiling Duty b) Excise duty c)
Basic Customs Duty d) Purchase tax
11. Goods and service
tax is a – tax system
a) Single point tax b) Multipoint tax c) Regressive
tax d) None of these
12.
Goods and service tax is --
a)
Supply based b) Consumption based
c) Both supply
and consumption based d) None of these
13.
When a GST dealer in Kerala sells a
product o a GST dealer or customer in Tamilnadu, the tax collected is
a)
SGST b)
CGST c)
Integrated GST d) UTGST
14.
After introduction of GST import into India is –
a) Subject to IGST plus BCD b) Subject to
CGST plus SGST plus BCD
c) Zero
rated d) SGST plus CGST plus
IGST plus BCD
15.
After introduction of GST supplies to SEZ are
a)
Subject to IGST b) Subject to CGST plus SGST
c) Zero rated d) SGST plus CGST
plus IGST
16.
GST is a matter of jurisdiction of
a) Union
Government b) State Government
c) Both centre and state government d) None of these
17.
Inter-state trade is presently subject to
a) SGST b) CGST c)
Integrated GST d) UTGST
18.
Introduction of GST affects the revenue of
a) Consuming states b) Manufacturing states
c) All the
states d) Central Government
19.
The council can take a decision only if there is
a) Three- fourth majority b) Two third
Majority
c) 60% majority
d) Simple majority
20.
GST dealers with annual turnover of --- are not
required to use HSN code
a) Less than Rs. 1.5 crore b) less than Rs.
20 lakh
c) less than Rs.
1 crore d) less than Rs. 75 lakh
21.
Dealers whose annual turnover between Rs. 1.5 crore
and Rs. 5 crore need to use
a) Two-digit HSN code b) Four digit HSN Codes
c) Four digit
HSN Codes d) Eight digit HSN codes
22. Dealers with
annual turnover of Rs. 5 crore and above must use -- for their invoices.
a) Two-digit HSN code b)
Four digit HSN Codes
c) Four digit HSN Codes d) Eight digit
HSN codes
23.
In the case of import or export of goods, using --
is compulsory
a) Two-digit HSN code b)
Four digit HSN Code
c)
Four digit HSN Code d)
Eight digit HSN code
24. Under GST law SAC
refers to --
a) Systematic Accounting Code b)
Service Accounting Code
c) System
administration code d) Scientific accounting code
25.
Under GST law, tax rates are determined by
a) Central Government b)
State Government
c) GST Council d) Central Government in consultation with state governments
26.
The lowest tax rate under GST is --
a) 0.25% b) 1% c) .05% d) 5%
27.
Base metals, gold, silver, articles
of jewellery are taxable in India at the rate of a) 0.25% b) 1% c) 3% d) 5%
28.
The highest GST rate
applicable now is --- a) 100% b) 18% c) 28% d) 50%
29.
Tax Deducted at Source at the rate of 1% is
applicable in the case of supplies received by
a) Any GST dealer b) Government Departments
c) Ecommerce
operators d) Composite dealers
30. Tax Collected at
Source at the rate of 2% is applicable in the case of
a) Any GST dealer b)
Government Departments
c) E-commerce operators d) Composite
dealers
31.
Composite tax is applicable for dealer with turnover upto
a) Rs. 1 Crore a) Rs. 20 lakh a) Rs. 1.5
Crore a) Rs. 10 Crore
32.
Under GST law Compensation cess is applicable on
a) Luxury
articles and demerit goods b) All goods
c) Petroleum
products and Alcohol d) Consumer goods
33.
Goods which get input tax credit without being
liable to collect output tax is called
a) Exempt goods b) White goods c) Sin goods d)
Zero rated goods
34. GST can be
collected by
a) Any registered
dealer b) Any GST dealer c) Any
service provider d) Any dealer
35.
-- confers powers to Government of
India to collect tax on intra-state supply of goods or services or both.
a) UTGST Act b) IGST Act c) CGST Act d) SGST Act
36.
Under GST law “Aggregate turnover” of a dealer
a) Includes taxes paid b) Excludes taxes paid
c) Includes
exempt supplies d) Turnover plus taxs plus profit
37. Under GST law
“Aggregate turnover” of a dealer is determined
a) State-wise b) All India basis c) shop-wise d)
None of these
38.
Under GST law “Agriculturist” means
a) Individual or Hindu Undivided Family only b) Individual
only
c) Any entity
engaged in agricultural operations d) Any one who sells agricultural produces
39.
Business vertical refers to
a) Joint venture b) Different busineses within a
group
c) Competitors in
business d) None of these
40.
Goods which are used or intended to be used in the
course or furtherance of business are
a) Demerit goods b) Business goods c)
Capital goods d) None of these
41.
A person who occasionally
undertakes transactions involving supply of goods or services or both in the
course or furtherance of business is
a) Business person b) Casual
taxable person c) composite dealer d) Non resident dealer
42.
Supply of two or more taxable supplies naturally
bundled and supplied is called
a) Mixed supply b) Composite supply c)
Common supply d) Continous supply
43. Goods are packed and transported with insurance, packing materials, transport
and insurance.
This is a case
of
a) Mixed supply b) Composite supply c)
Common supply d) Continous supply
44.
Supply of goods provided, or agreed
to be provided, continuously or on recurrent
basis, under a contract, is
a)
Mixed supply b) Composite supply c) Common supply d) Continous supply
45.
Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. sends
10,000 litres of petrol every day to a petrol pump and invoices the same every
week. This is a case of
a)
Mixed supply b) Composite supply c) Common supply d)
Continous supply
46.
Any goods other than capital goods
used or intended to be used by a supplier in the course or furtherance of
business is
a) Input b) Output c)
Merit goods d) White goods
47.
--- refers to receipt of goods or
services or both whether by purchase, acquisition or any other means with or without consideration.
a) Outward supply
b) Inward supply c) Taxable supply d) None of
these
48.
Two or more individual supplies of
goods or services, or any combination thereof, made in conjunction with each
other
a)
Mixed supply b) Composite supply c) Common supply d) Continous
supply
49.
A supply of a package consisting of
canned foods, sweets, chocolates, cakes, dry fruits, aerated drinks and fruit
juices when supplied for a single price is
a)
Common supply b) Composite supply c) Mixed supply d) Continous supply
50.
Any person who occasionally
undertakes transactions involving supply of goods or services or both, but who
has no fixed place of business or residence in India is
a) Business person b)
Casual taxable person c) composite dealer d)
Non resident dealer
51.
Output tax of a taxable person,
a) Includes reverse charge b)
Excludes reverse charge
c) Includes
composite tax d) Includes all the taxes paid
52.
Supply of goods or services which
constitutes the predominant element of a composite supply is called
a)
Common supply b) Principal supply c) Mixed supply d) Continous supply
53.
Liability to pay tax
by the recipient of supply of goods or services is called
a) Output tax b) Reverse charge c)
Input tax d) None of these
54.
The chair of GST Council
a) Nominated by
the Govt b) Nominated by the GST Council
c) Union Finance Minister d) Elected by the
GST council
55. In the GST
council meetings , the vote of the
Central Government shall have a weightage of
a) 1/3 of votes cast b) 1/2 of votes
cast c) 2/3 of votes cast d) None of these
56.
In the GST council meetings votes
of all the State Governments taken together shall have a weightage of
a)
1/3 of votes cast b) 1/2 of votes cast c) 2/3 of votes cast d) None of
these
57.
Tax rate on goods under GST are determined by
a) Union budget b)
State budget
c) GST council d) Central Govt in
consultation with state Govt.
58.
Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act is applicable to
a) All the States b)
All the Union territories
c) The whole of India d) All the states
except Jammu and Kashmir
59.
Integrated GST is applicable on goods or services
a) Imports b) Interstate
Sale c) Exported from India d) Imports and interstate sales
60.
The rate of IGST is equal to the rate of
a) CGST b) SGST c)
CGST plus the rate of SGST d) SGST plus UTGST
61) IGST
collected belong to
a) Central
Government b) To the State in which supply occurs
c) to the State to which supply occurs d)
The Centre and state to which supply occurs
62.
Where a supply is received at a
place of business for which the registration has been obtained, ‘location of
the recipient of services’ is
a)
location of place of business of recipient b) location of service
provider
c) Place where
payment is received d) None of the above
63. Where a supply is
received at more than one place ‘location of the recipient of services’ is
a) Location of the establishment
most directly concerned with the receipt of the supply
b) Location of service provider c) Place where payment is received
d) None of the above
64.
The maximum limit of IGST rate
fixed in the Act is a) 18% b) 28% c) 40% d) 100%
65. Where an E-
commerce operator does not have physical presence in the taxable territory
a) Tax need not be paid b) Agent of the E- commerce
operator shall be liable to pay tax
c) Tax must be
paid in advance d) IGST is not applicable
66.
Where the location of the supplier and the place of
supply are in two different States –
a) IGST is applicable b) CGST is applicable
c) SGST plus
CGST is applicable d) CGST plus IGST is applicable
67. Where location of
the supplier and the place of supply are in two different Union territories
a) CGST plus UTGST is applicable b) IGST is
applicable
c) SGST plus UTGST is applicable d)
CGST plus IGST is applicable
68. Where location of
the supplier and place of supply are in a State and a Union territory
a) CGST plus UTGST is applicable b)
CGST plus IGST is applicable
c) SGST plus UTGST is applicable d)
IGST is
applicable
69.
Supply of goods where the location
of the supplier and the place of supply of goods are in the same State or same
Union territory shall be treated as
a) Inter state b)
Intra-state supply c) Taxable supply d) None of these
70. Supply of goods
to or by a Special Economic Zone
a) CGST plus UTGST b) CGST
plus IGST c) IGST d) None of these
71.
1,000 bags of sugar are supplied by a sugar mill in Chennai to a wholesaler
in Ernakulam. The sugar bags are sent by
the mill to Ernakulam. Payment made by cheque payable at SBI Madurai. The place
of supply is
a) Ernakulam b) Chennai c) Madurai d) Any
of these
72.
A wholesaler in Ernakulam sends an
agent to procure 1,000 bags of sugar from a factory in Chennai. The invoice and
other documents are handed over to the agent in Theni as directed by the wholesaler. Later the sugar bags are brought
to Ernakulam. Amount paid online from SBI branch Calicut. The place of supply is
a) Ernakulam b)
Chennai c) Theni d) Calicut
73. The place of
supply of goods imported into India shall be
a) The location of exporter b)
The location of the importer
c) State in
which imported goods reaches first d) place of supply not applicable.
74. Place of supply
of goods exported from India shall be
a) The location outside India b) The location
of the exporter
c) State in which exported goods reaches first d) Place of supply
not applicable.
75.
The managers of ITC Ltd., Kolkata
(GST registered) are given one week training in Munnar, by Infosys Ltd.
Bangalore, for a sum of Rs. 10 Lakhs. Payment given at Mumbai. The place of
supply of service is
a) Mumbai b) Kolkata c) Munnar d) Bangalore
76 The managers of ITC Ltd.,
Kolkata (not registered under GST) are given one week training in Munnar, by Infosys
Ltd. Bangalore, for a sum of Rs. 10 Lakhs.
Payment given at Mumbai.
The place of supply of service is
a) Mumbai b) Kolkata c)
Munnar d) Bangalore
77.
The place of supply of services to
a registered person by way of transportation of goods, including by mail or courier, shall be
a)
The location of such person b) Location of transporting agency
c) Place of
payment d) None of these.
78. The place of
supply of telecommunication services shall be
a) The location where connection is installed b) Place of
office of the service provider
c) Place of
payment d) Place of supply not relevant
79.
In case of mobile connection for
telecommunication and internet services provided on post- paid basis, the
location of supply is
a) Place of office of the service
provider b) Place of payment
c) Billing address of the recipient of services d) Place of
supply not relevant
80. The place of
supply of banking and financial services shall
be
a) Place of office of the service provider b)
Location of the recipient of services
c) Place of
payment d) Place of supply not relevant
81. Export of goods
or services or both or Supply of goods or services to SEZ is
a) Subject to
IGST b) Subject to SGST plus CGST
c) Zero rated d) Subecto to CGST plus IGST
82. A registered
person making zero rated supply shall be
a) Eligible to claim refund b) Not eligible for refund
c) Subject to
reverse charge d) None of these
83. Half share of
IGST moves always to
a) Selling state b)
Buying state
c) Equally to selling state
and buying state d) None of these
84.
Gifts not exceeding --- in a year
by an employer to employee shall not be treated as supply. a) Rs. 5,000 b) Rs. 10,000 c) Rs. 50,000, d) Rs. 1,00,000
85.
Lease, tenancy, easement or licence to occupy land
is a supply of
a)
Goods b) Services c) Both goods and services
d) None
86. Letting out of
the building orresidential complex is a supply
of
a)
Goods b) Services c) Both goods and services
d) None
87. Transfer of the title
in goods is a supply of
a)
Goods b) Services c)
Both goods and services d) None
88.
Transfer of right in goods or of undivided share in
goods ‘without the transfer of title’ is
a)
supply of Goods b) supply of Services c) supply of
Both goods and services d) None
89.
Transfer of title in goods under an
agreement which stipulates that property in
goods shall pass at a future date upon payment of full consideration, is
a supply of -
a)
Both goods and services b) Services c) Goods d)
None
90. Any treatment or
process which is applied to another person’s goods is a supply of
a)
Goods b) Services c) Both goods and services
d) None
91.
Goods held or used for the purposes
of the business are put to any private use or made available to any person for
use, is a supply of
a) Goods b) Services
c) Both goods and services d) None
92.
Construction of a complex,
building, civil structure intended for sale to a buyer, wholly or partly is
supply of –
a) Goods b) Services c) Both goods and services
d) None
93.
Where the
entire consideration has been received after issuance of completion certificate
or after its first occupation is
a)
Transfer of Goods b) Transfer of immovable property
c) Transfer fo
services d) None of these
94.
Mr. A an architect, agrees to
design and construct a building for Mr. Bj, for a sum of Rs. 1Crore. The
construction completed and the amount received by Mr. A. This is supply of
a) Goods b) Services c) Both goods and services
d) None
95. Transfer of the
‘right to use any goods’ for any purpose for consideration is supply of
a) Goods b) Services
c) Both goods and services d) None
96. Works contract is
a supply of
a) Goods b) Services
c) Both goods and services d) None
97.
Services by an
employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his employment is
a) Supply of
Goods b) Supply of Services
c) Supply of Both goods and services d)
Not supply
98.
Services by any court or Tribunal established under any law is a)Supply of
Goods b) Supply of Services
c)
Supply of Both goods and services d) Not supply
99. The functions
performed by the Members of Parliament, Members
of State Legislature are
a) Supply of
Goods b) Supply of Services
c) Supply of Both goods and services d)
Not supply
100.
Duties performed by any person in the Constitutional
capacity are
a) Supply of
Goods b) Supply of Services
c) Supply of Both goods and services d)
Not supply
101.
Services of funeral, crematorium or
mortuary including transportation of the deceased is – a)Supply of Goods b)
Supply of Services
c)
Supply of Both goods and services d) Not supply
102.
Actionable claims, other than lottery, betting and
gambling are a)Supply of Goods b) Supply of Services
c) Supply of Both goods and services d)
Not supply
103.
Activities undertaken by the
Government, or any local authority in
which they are
engaged as public authorities are
a)Supply of Goods b) Supply of Services
c) Supply of Both goods and services d)
Not supply
104.
In the case of composite supply the rate of tax is
a) Average Rate of tax b) Rate of principal supply c)
Highest rate d) None of these
105 A DTH company supplies a dish, set-top box, 3 year repairing and
subscription of 500 channels for five years services as a package to the
customers for Rs. 25,000. This is a
a)
Mixed supply b) Composite supply c) Joint Supply
d) Not supply
106.
One tooth paste and tooth brush and a toilet soap
sold in a packet for Rs. 50, is
a)
Mixed supply b) Composite supply c) Joint
Supply d) Not supply
107.
In the case of mixed supply the rate of tax is
a) Average Rate
of tax b) Rate of principal supply c) Highest rate d) None of these
108.
The Central Goods and Services Tax is levied under
a) Section 9 of the CGST Act b) Section 10
CGST Act
c) Section 8 of
the IGST Act d) Section 2 of the SGST Act
109.
The charging section of CGST is
a) Section 9 b) Section 10 c) Section 4
d) Section 2
110.
When locally made food products or
industrial components or raw materials supplied by unregistered persons are purchased
by a registered persons –
a) GST is applicable b) GST is not applicable c)
Reverse charge is applicable d) Not taxable
111.
Section 9(4) of the CGST Act deals with
a) GST b) Reverse charge c) Composite tax
d) None of these
112.
In the case of reverse charge, tax is paid to the
government by
a) Supplier b) Buyer c) Manufacturer
d) None
113.
Mr. X, a jewellery owner received
the services of a local interior designer (unregistered) and made a payment of Rs. 1,00,000.
Here if the rate of tax on interior designing
service is 18%.
a) GST applicable b) Tax not
applicable
c) Reverse charge applicable d) IGST
applicable
114.
On Services provided by E-commerce operator
a) GST applicable b) GST not applicable
c) Reverse
charge applicable d) IGST applicable
115.
Sec. 10(1) of the CGST Act deals pertains to -
a) Levy of GST
b) Levy of Reverse Charge
c) Composition tax d) None of these
116.
The notified limit for payment of composition levy
is -
a) Rs. 1 Crore b) Rs. 20Lakh c) Rs. 50 Lakh
d) Rs. 2 Crore
117.
The notified limit for payment of composition levy
in the case of special category states is
a) Rs. 1 Crore
b) Rs. 20Lakh c) Rs. 50 Lakh d) Rs. 75 lakh
118.
The rate of composition tax for trading firms is
a) 1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 12%
119.
A Composite taxpayer is required to file summarised
details of transactions
a) Annually b) Half yearly c) Quarterly d)
Monthly
120.
A taxpayer under the composition scheme
a) Can collect
GST b) Can collect reverse tax
c) Cannot collect GST d) Can collect
composite tax
121.
A person liable to pay tax under Reverse Charge Mechanism
a) Cannot opt for composition b) Can opt for
composition
c) Cannot collect GST d)
Can collect composite tax
122.
Composition scheme is available only for
a) Inter state
supplies b) B2B supplies
c) Intra-state supplies d) E-commerce
operators
123.
If the person has inter-state transactions,
composition scheme is
a) Not allowed b) Optional c) Compulsory
d) None of the above
124.
In order to adopt composition
scheme by more than one registered persons having the same Permanent Account
Number, turnover of
a)
All must be less than Rs. 1 crore b) At least one must be
below Rs. 1 crore
c) All must be
more than Rs. 20 lakh b) At least one must be less Rs. 20 lakh.
125.
Persons eligible for composition levy include
a)
A casual taxable person b)
A non-resident taxable person
c) Person who has inter-state trade d) Person with turnover of less than Rs. 1 crore
126.
Hotels eligible for composition scheme shall be
liable to pay tax at the rate of
a) 5% b) 1% c) 18% d) 12%
127.
GST applicable on Five star Hotel
Restaurants is a) 5% b) 18% c) 28% d) 40%
128.
Time of supply means the date of issue of invoice or
date of payment
a) Whichever is earlier b) whichever is
later
c) any of the
two or d) none of the above
129.
In respect of the additional
payment for value of supply like
interest, late fee etc., the time of
supply is
a)
Date additional payment b) Date of original payment
c) date on which
supply was received d) Any date at the option of the supplier
130.
Mr. C sold goods worth Rs. 30000 to
Mr. Dr on 5.8.2017, which were sent on 6.8.2017, the invoice date being 15.8.2017
and the goods were received by Mr. D on 5.9.2017. Time of supply is
a) 5.8.2017 b) 6.8.2017 c)
15.8.2017 d) 5.9.2017
131.
Mr. Kumar sold goods worth Rs.
40,000 to Mr. Lalu on 2.8.2017, but the payment was received from Mr. Lalu on
2.10.2017. Time of supply is -
a) 2.8.2017 b) 2.10.2017 c) either 2.8.2017
or 2.10.2017 d) None of these
132.
If it is not possible to determine the time of
supply, the time of supply shall be
a) decided by
the supplier b) decided by the recipient
c) date of entry in the books of recipient d)
date of entry in the books of supplier
133.
Under GST law value of supply -
a) shall not
include GST paid b) shall include GST paid
c) shall include taxes other than GST d) shall not
inclue any tax
134.
Under GST law value of supply shall -
a) include Incidental expenses b) not include
Incidental expenses
c) include
charges only after payment by the recipient d) include after payment by
supplier
135.
Interest, late fee or penalty for delayed payment of
any consideration is
a) Included in
value of supply b) Not included
in value of supply
c) Included if
the recipient requests d) Included at the option of the supplier
136.
When the supply of goods or
services is for a consideration not wholly in money, the value of the supply
shall be
a) Value
declared by the supplier b) value
declared by the recipient
c) Open market value of such supply d) None of these
137.
A new mobile handset is supplied
for Rs.10,000 exchanging an old phone. Without
exchange offer the price of handset is Rs 25,000. Market Value of
similar phones is Rs.20,000. What is the value of supply?
a) Rs 10,000 b) Rs 20,000 c) Rs 25,000 d) Either Rs 25,000 or
Rs 20,000
138.
A laptop is supplied receiving Rs.
30,000 and a mobile phone worth Rs. 20,000. Value of supply –
a) Rs 20,000 b) Rs 30,000 c) Rs 50,000 d) Rs 10,000
139.
Tax paid on goods or services involved in supply is called
a) Output tax b) Input tax c) Composite
tax d) Reverse tax
140.
Tax collected at the time of supply of goods or
services is called
a) Output tax b) Input tax c) Composite
tax d) Reverse tax
141.
Input tax credit is allowed to
a) Any one who
has paid tax b) Any registered person
c) Any Composite dealers d) Any dealer under GST
142.
Input tax credit shall be allowed only on the
support of
a) Delivery note b) Payment slip c) Credit
note d)
Tax invoice
143.
Input tax credit shall be allowed only against
a) Any tax payable b) Output tax c)
Composite tax d) Refund
144.
Where the goods are received in lots or instalments
input tax credit can be claimed
a) upon reciept of first lot b)
upon receipt of the last lot
c) Any time at
the option of the supplier d) after full payment of price
145.
Where a recipient fails to pay the
price within 180 days from the date of issue of invoice, he shall be liable to pay input tax credit to
the Government with --- % interest
a) 10% b) 12% c) 18% d)
None of these
146.
Input tax credit of an invoice can
be availed within a period of -- or the 30th September following the
year of invoice whichever is earlier.
a)
2 years b) 1 year c) 6 months d ) 3 Months
147.
If goods or services are partly
used for business purposes and partly for other purposes, input tax credit
a)
can be fully claimed b) can be partly claimed c) cannot
be claimed d) Not applicable
148.
Input tax credit is not available for
a) services b) zero rated supplies c) taxable
supplies d) exempt supplies
149.
Input tax credit is not available for supplies to
a) SEZ b) Exports c)
Provide non taxable services d) Produce taxable goods
150.
Input tax for personal vehicles
a) can be claimed by any dealer b)
Blocked credit
c) can be
claimed by GST dealers d) Can be claimed by any person.
151.
Input tax credit in respect of food
and beverages, outdoor catering, beauty treatment, health services, cosmetic
and plastic surgery belong to
a)
Exempt category b) Composite tax category c) Blocked credit category d)
None of these.
152.
Input tax credit in respect of food membership of a
club, health and fitness centre
belong to
a) Exempt
category b) Blocked credit category c) Composite tax category d) None of
these.
153.
Input tax credit in respect of rent-a-cab, life
insurance and health insurance belong to
a) Blocked credit category b) Exempt
category c) Composite tax category d) None of these
154.
Input tax credit in respect of
goods lost, stolen, destroyed,
written off or disposed of by way
of gift or free samples; belong to
a) Exempt category b) Composite tax category c) Blocked
credit category d) None of these
155.
Goods or services or both on which tax has been paid
under section 10 belong to
a) Exempt
category b) Composite tax category c) Blocked credit category d) None of
these
156.
Input tax credit is not allowed on the support of
a) Tax invoice
issued by the supplie b) A debit note issued by a supplier
c) An Input Service Distributor invoice d)
Delivery chalan
157.
Reversal of input tax credit happens when
a) Recipient does not pay the amount within 180 days
b) When goods are of inferior quaility
c) Supplier
refuces to accept payment d) None of these
158.
In the case of reversal of input
tax credit, interest at the rate of --- % is applicable a) 8% b) 12% c) 18% d) 24%
159.
Reversal of Input tax credit
happens when a person fails to pay the amount of price including tax to the
supplier within a period of
a) 180 days b) 30days c) 60days d) 90 days
160.
Input Service Distributor means
a) Any service
provider b) Any GST registered service provider
c) Office distributing common service d)
Office distributing common input tax credit
161.
Input Service Distributor shall distribute the
credit of CGST
a) Either as CGST or IGST b) as CGST only
c) SGST only d)
Either as CGST or as SGST
162.
When an exempt supply in the hands
of registered person becomes a taxable supply, such person a) can take credit of input tax b)
is not entitled to take credit of input tax
c) liable to pay tax on stock d) liable to pay
reverse charge
163.
A registered person, after availing input tax
credit, opts for composition levy,
a) shall be liable to pay the input tax on stock or
capital goods b) shall not be liable to pay tax
c) liable to pay
reverse charge d) None of these
164.
In case of transfer of capital goods or plant and
machinery the registered person shall
a) not be liable to pay input tax credit
claimed b) be liable to pay the input tax credit claimed
c) liable to pay
reverse charge d) None of these
165.
Tax credit in respect of goods or inputs sent for
job work can be claimed by
a) Job worker b)
Principal c) Either by Jobworker or Principal d) Not eligible for input
credit
166.
A registered person shall not be entitled to take
input tax credit after
a) Three months
of issuing tax invoice b) Six months of issuing tax invoice
c) One year from the date of issue of tax invoice d) Two years of
issuing tax invoice
167.
A registered person need not issue
a tax invoice if the value of supply less than a) 100 b) Rs. 200 c) 500 d) 1000
168.
A registered person supplying
exempted goods or services or paying composition tax under section 10 shall issue
a)
GST Bill b) Bill of supply c) Delivery chalan d) Debit note
169.
A registered person shall, on receipt of advance
payment for goods or services, issue
a) GST Bill b) Bill of supply c)
Receipt voucher d) Debit note
170.
After issuing a receipt voucher for advance payment, if no supply
is made --- may be issued
against such payment.
a)
Refund voucher b) Debit note c) Tax invoice d) Bill of supply
171.
In a tax invoice of supply of
Rs. 50,000 or
more to an
unregistered person, the
name and address of the recipient and the address of delivery are
a)
Optional b) Compulsory in all cases
c) compulsory to
avail input tax credit d) compulsory if the recipient insists
172.
In a tax invoice of supply of less
than Rs. 50,000 to an unregistered person, the name and address of the recipient and the
address of delivery are
a) Optional b) Compulsory in all cases
c) compulsory to avail input tax credit d) compulsory
if the recipient insists
173.
An unregistered person
a) is allowed to collect GST b) is
not allowed to collect GST
c) is allowed to
collect composite tax c) is allowed to collect reverse tax
174.
A consolidated invoice at the end
of a month for supplies on which reverse charge is applicable is required when
the aggregate value of such supplies exceeds
a) Rs. 1,000 in a day b) Rs. 5,000 in a day c)
Rs. 10,000 in a day d)
Rs. 50,000 in a day
175.
In the case of sale to an
unregistered person, a registered person may not issue a tax invoice, if the value of supply is
a) less than
Rs. 100 b) less than Rs. 200 c)
less than Rs. 500 d) less than Rs. 1,000
176.
In the case of the taxable supply of services the
invoice shall be issued within a period of
a) 15days b) 30
days c) 45 days d) 90days
177.
The original copy of a tax invoice of goods belongs to
a) Recipient of supply b) Transporter of
supply c) The supplier d) GST department
178.
The duplicate copy of a tax invoice of goods belongs to
a) Recipient of supply b) Transporter of supply c)
The supplier d) GST department
179.
The triplicate copy of a tax invoice of goods
belongs to
a) Recipient of
supply b) Transporter of supply c) The supplier d) GST department
180.
A bill of supply is issued in the case of
a)Taxable goods b) Reverse charge c)
Exempt goods d) Composite supply
181.
A Debit note is issued to the recipient of goods or
services if
1) Taxable value is found
to be excess 2) The goods are returned by the
recipient;
3) Goods supplied are found to be deficient 4) Tax charged is found to be lesser
182.
Mr. P supplied goods of Rs.
1,00,000, to Mr. Q, who returned goods of Rs 10,000 due to inferior quality.
Mr. P will later issue
a) Credit note b) Debit note c)
Tax invoice d) Delivery challan
183.
A credit note is issued to the recipient of goods in
the following cases
1) When the taxable value
of goods found to be less 2)
Tax charged found to be less
3) When the recipient refuces to make payment 4) None of these
184.
Mr. X supplied goods to Mr. Y the cost was Rs. 1,00,000 but wrongly billed as Rs. 10,000.
Mr. X will later
issue
a) Debit note to Mr.Y a) Credit note to
Mr.Y
c) Tax invoice
to Mr.Y d) Delivery chalan to Mr.Y
185.
In the case of supply of liquid gas
where the quantity at the time of removal from the place of business of the
supplier is not known
a)
Delivery challan is not required b) Tax invoice is not required
c) Debit note is
required d) credit note is required
186.
In the case of transportation of goods for job work,
a) Delivery challan is required b) Tax invoice is
required
c) Debit note is required d) credit note is required
187.
The eligible input tax will be automatically
credited to the
a) Electronic Credit Ledger b) Electronic
cash ledger
c) Electronic
Liability register d) None of these
188.
Every deposit made towards tax shall be credited to
a) Electronic credit ledger b)
Electronic Cash Ledger
c) Electronic
Liability register d) None of these
189.
The input tax credit as
self-assessed in the return
of a registered
person shall be
credited to his electronic
a)
Cash Ledger c) Liability register c) Credit Ledger d) Debit ledger
190.
IGST credit shall first be utilised towards payment of
a) CGST b) SGST c) IGST d) UTGST
191.
The balance of IGST credit after set off IGST can be
used towards the payment of
a) CGST b) SGST c) IGST d) UTGST
192.
The balance of CGST credit after set off of CGST can
be used towards the payment of
a) SGST b) UTGST
c) either SGST or UTGST d) IGST
193.
SGST or UTGST shall not be utilised towards payment of
a) CGST b) IGST c) SGST d) UTGST
194.
Tax and other dues of a registered person is
recorded in
a) Electronic
credit ledger b) Electronic Cash Ledger
c) Electronic Liability register d) None of these
195.
The Electronic Liability Register of a person shall
be credited by -
a) The amount payable towards tax b) The amount of penalty or any other amount payable
c) Any amount of interest that may accrue
from time to time d) None of these
196.
Balance of Input credit of SGST after output tax
liability of SGST can be utilised to
set off
a) CGST b) UTGST c)
IGST d) None of these
197.
Every person who fails to pay tax
shall be liable to pay interest not exceeding a) 10% b) 12% c)
18% d) 24%
198.
A taxable person who makes an undue
or excess claim of input tax credit shall be liable to pay interest not exceeding
a) 10% b)
12% c) 18% d) 24%
199.
TDS rate under GST
is
a) 1% b) 2% c)3% d)5%
200.
TDS provision applicable only when
the total value of supply, under a contract, exceeds a) Rs. 1,00,000 b) Rs. 1,50,000 c) Rs. 2,00,000 d)
Rs. 2,50,000
201.
TDS is not allowed in the case of
a) A department or State Government b) Local authority; or
c) Governmental agencies d) E-commerce operators
201.
For the purpose of TDS, the value of supply shall be
taken as the amount in the invoice
a) Excluding tax b) Including tax c) Before
discount d) None of these
202.
After making TDS if the deductor
fails to furnish the certificate within five days of crediting the amount so
deducted to the Government, the deductor shall pay a late fee of
a) Rs.100 per day b) Rs.150 per day
c) Rs.200 per day d) Rs.250 per day
203.
Collection of Tax at Source is relevant in the case of
a) Government departments b)
E-commerce operators c) Any GST dealers d) Contractors
204) TCS rate under
GST is
a) 5% b) 2% c) 3% d) 1%
205) E-commerce
operators should submit return of TCS
a) Monthly b) Every three months c) Every
year d)
Monthly and Annually
206.
Refund of GST is not applicable in the case of
a)
Imports b) Notified
Multilateral Financial Institution
c) Embassy of foreign countries ii) Zero rated supplies;
207.
A situation where the rate of tax on input is more than rate of tax on output is
a) Inverted duty structure
b) excess input tax credit
c) Compensation Cess d) Refund
208) GST paid
for supplies exported from the country is
a) Refunded to the exporter b) Refunded only if exported
from SEZ
c) Not
refunded d) Refunded to the state
from which export happens
209.
GST registration is mandatory if the aggregate
turnover in a financial year exceeds
a) Rs. 20 lakh b) Rs. 50 lakh c) Rs. 75 lakh d)
Rs. 1 Crore
210.
In specified category states GST
registration is mandatory if the aggregate turnover in a financial year exceeds
a) Rs. 1 Crore b)
Rs. 10 lakh c)
Rs. 20 Lakh d) Rs. 75
lakh
211.
GST registration is not compulsory in the case of
a) Casual
taxable persons making taxable supply;b) Persons under reverse charge;
c) Non-resident making taxable supply; d) Person
dealing in exempt goods alone
212.
GST registration is not compulsory in the case of
a) Input Service
Distributor b) Electronic commerce operator
c) Dealer in Exempt goods d) Persons making
any inter-state taxable supply
213.
A person who is liable to be
registered shall apply for registration within --- from the
date on which he becomes liable to registration
a) 10 b) 15 days b) 30 days c) 90 days
214.
If a person liable to be registered has operation in
more than one State, he should
a) Obtain registration in all states b) obtain
registration in any one state
c) registration
is optional d) Registration not mandatory
215.
A casual taxable person or a non-resident taxable
person shall apply for registration at least --- prior to the commencement of business
a) 3 days b) 5 days c) 10 days d)
15days
216.
Every person who makes a supply from the territorial
waters of India
a) shall obtain registration in the coastal State/ union territory b) Any state in India
c) registration
not required d) Registration is optional
217.
Unique Identity
Number’ is not relevant in the case of
a) United
Nations Organisation b) Multilateral Financial Institution Consulate,
c) Embassy of foreign countries d)
GST dealers
218.
TAN refers to
a) Tax Deduction and Collection Account Number b) Tax
acknowldegemet number
c) Tax accouting
Number d) Tax Assessement Number
219.
If the proper officer does not take
any action within a period of three working days from the date of submission of
the application for GST registration -
a) Fresh application shall be submitted b) Implies
Rejection of registration
c) Deemed registration d) implies
registration not required.
220.
GSTIN refers to
a) GST Information
Number b) GST Information and Network
c) General sales tax identifcation number d)
GST identification Number
221.
GST number does not
include
a) PAN b) State Code c)
Aadhaar Number d) Alphabet Z
222.
A person getting registered online
a)
gets simultaneous registration
under CGST Act and SGST Act or UTGST Act.
b)
gets CGST registration only
c)
gets SGSTregistration only
d)
does not get complete registration under GST
223.
The certificate of registration
issued to a casual taxable person or a non-resident taxable person shall be
valid for a period of
a) 30 days b) 90 days c) 6 months d) one year
224.
As
a result of any
surve or search if the proper officer finds that a person liable to
registration, he will be given
a)
Deemed registration b) Suomoto registration
c) Cancelled
registration d) suspected registration
225.
Registration once granted
a) Can be amended b) Cannot be
amended c) is temporory d) None of these
226.
Which of the following is not a reason for
cancellation of registration?
a) Business has been discontinued b) Business transferred fully
c) Taxable person is no longer liable to be
registered d) Shifted the business place
227.
Whcih of the following is not a reason for
cancellation of registration by proper officer?
a) contravened
the provisions of the Act or the rules b) Not furnished returns in time
c) has not paid tax in time d) Registration
has been obtained by means of fraud
228.
Cancellation of registration
a) cannot be revoked b) can be revoked
c) can be
revoked by GST counil d) is not possible
229.
Which among the following is not
compulsory among he accounts and records maintained by the GST
dealers
a) Inward and outward supplies b) Stock of goods
c) Input tax credit availed d)
Sundry Debtors
230.
Every registered person should keep
and maintain the prescribed books of accounts and records a) At all the offices
b)
at principal place of business
c) wherever requested by the GST officers d)
electronically
231.
Maintaining books of accounts in electronic form is
a) compulsory b) optional
c) compulsory if turnover is more than 1 crore d) compulsory if turnover is more than 10 crore
232.
When turnover during a financial
year exceeds --- the accounts and other records must be audited by a chartered
accountant or a cost accountant
a) 1 crore b) 2 crore
3) 5 crore 4)
10 crore
233.
Every registered person required to keep and
maintain books of account or other records
a) for a period of 2 years b)
for a period of 3 years
c) for a period of 5 years d)
for a period of 6 years
234.
Details of outward supply shall be furnished in
a) GSTR 3 b) GSTR 2 c) GSTR 1A d) GSTR1
235 GSTR-1 has
to be mandatorily done by the
a) 30th of next month b) 20th
of next month c) 15th of next month d) 10th of the next month.
237. GSTR-2A is
autogenerated from
a) GSTR 3 b) GSTR 2 c) GSTR 2A d) GSTR1
238. gives the details of goods or services received
by the recipients. It is auto populated
out of the GSTR
-1 submitted by different suppliers
a) GSTR 3 b) GSTR 3B c)
GSTR - 2A d) GSTR 9
239. GSTR-2 gives the
details of
a) all inward supplies b) all outward
supplies c) Composite tax d) TDS
240. GSTR - 2A is made
available on the 11th of the next month for the
a) Recipients of supplies b) Suppliers c)
GST officers d) Customers
241. GSTR-3 is
auto-populated by 20th of the next month containing the details of
a) Outward
supplies b) inward supplies
c) all outward as well as inward supplies d) None of these
242. GSTR-4A is
generated quarterly for
a) GST dealers
b) Customers
c) Composition scheme taxpayers d) Ecommerce
operators
243. Returns to be
filed by Non-Resident Taxpayer is
a) GSTR-3 b) GSTR-4 c)
GSTR- 4A d) GSTR-5
245. GSTR-6A is meant for
a) GST dealers
b) Composition scheme taxpayers
c) Ecommerce operators d) Input
Service Distributor
246.
GSTR-7 contains details of
a) TDS b) TCS c)
Composition tax d) Outward supply
247.
GSTR-8 shall contain
the details of all the supplies made by the
a) Input service distributors b)
E-Commerce seller c) GST dealers d) Composition dealers
248. GSTR-9 is also called
a) Annual
Return b) Monthly return c) Quarterly return d)
Half yearly return
249. GSTR-9A is the
annual return for
a) Input service distributors b) E-Commerce
seller c) GST dealers d) Composition tax payers.
250. GST dealers
whose annual turnover
exceeds Rs. 1 crore, should file
a reconciliation statement in within 31st December of the next fiscal year
a) GSTR 5 b) GSTR 6 c) GSTR 9A d) Form GSTR-9B
251.
Form GSTR-9B is also called
a) Annual Return b) Monthly
return c) Quarterly return d) Reconciliation statement
252.
Final return in Form GSTR-10 is relevant in the case of
a) Input service
distributors b) E-Commerce seller
c) GST dealers d) Cancellation of registration
253.
Final return in Form GSTR-10 should be submitted
a) within one year of registration b)
within 3 months of such cancellation of registration
c) within 3
months of outward supply d) within one month of renewal of registration
254. Government body
or a United Nations Body, then a monthly Form GSTR-11 has to file
a) GSTR 11 b) GSTR8A c) GSTR 9A d) GSTR
5
255.
A registered person under GST can file quarterly
return if the turnover is
a) 2lakh or less b) 75 lakh or less c) One crore of less d) 1.5 crore or less
256. Adding
or correcting the details of an outward supply in valid return so as to match
the details of corresponding inward supply is
called
a)
Rectification of return b) reversal
of return c) reconciliation of return d) acceptance of return
257. Assessment under
section 59 is
a) Best judgement
assessment b) Provisional
assessment c) Self assessment d) Protective
assessment
258. voluntary
estimation of tax obligations is called
a) Best
judgement assessment b) Provisional assessment c) Self
assessment d) Protective
assessment
259. The
proper officer shall pass an order, allowing payment of tax at such rate or
on such value as may be specified
by him. This is called
a) Best judgement assessment b) Provisional assessment c) Self assessment d) Protective
assessment
260. The proper
officer may assess
the tax liability
on the basis of available information, evidences which is called
a) Best
judgement assessment b) Provisional assessment c) Self assessment d) Protective
assessment
261. Assessment under
section Sec. 62 is called
a) Self
assessment b) Provisional
assessment c) Best judgement assessment d) Protective assessment
262. Best judgement
assessment is carried out
a) under section
59 b)
under section 60 c)
under section 62 d) under
section 64
263. Summary
Assessment under section 64 is also called
a) Self
assessment b) Provisional assessment
c) Best judgement assessment d)
Protective assessment
264. Protective
assessment under section 64 is also called
a) Summary
Assessment b) Self assessment c) Provisional assessment d) Best judgement
assessment
265. Electronic Way
Bill is compulsory to move goods of worth
a) Rs. 10,000 or more b) 20,000 or more c)
50,000 or more d) 1,00,000 or more
266. Which among the
following is not related to e-way bill
a) RFID b) IRN c)
FORM GST INS-01 d) GSTR -9
267. validity of e-way
bill is -
a) one day for each 100 k.ms b) two days for
each 100 kms
c) one day for
each 200 kms d) one day for each 500 kms
268. Where
a vehicle has been intercepted and detained for a period exceeding thirty
minutes, the transporter may upload the
said information on the common portal in
a) FORM GST
INS - 0 4 b) FORM GST INS -
0 10
c) FORM GST INS
- 0 9 d) FORM GST INS - 0 6
269. Input tax credit
is not available in the case of supplie to
a) SEZ b) Exports c)UN agencies d) Composite dealers
270. Input credit
available without being liable for output tax in the case of
a) Exempt goods b) Non
taxable goods c)
Zero rated goods d) Demerit goods
271. Compensation cess
is levied on
a) Demerit goods b) Luxury goods c)
Demerit goods and luxury goods d) Essential goods
272. Goods which are
harmful but widely consumed are collective called
a) demerit goods b) merit goods c) inferior
goods d) white goods
273.
Sin tax refers to heavy tax on
a) Demerit goods b) White goods c)
Food products d) Medicines
274. Tax on demerit
goods is called
a) Double tax b) Luxury tax c)
Sin tax d) Demerit tax
275. GST council
meeting is convened
a) every week b) every month c) every
3 months d) any time as required
276. After
introduction of GST export from India is subject to --
a)
IGST b) CGST plus SGST c) Zero rated d)
SGST plus CGST plus IGST
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